Churchwork
06-07-2006, 01:10 PM
What does the bible say about resurrection, is it the reanimation of a dead body or is it spiritual, symbolic, or what? Several posters claim that it is not a literal physical resurrection, and since they hold that the vast majority of prophecy (including resurrection) is already past then by necessity the resurrection cannot be physical. So if the bible teaches that the resurrection of dead believers is physical then the preterist's views are flawed.
Job 19:25 For I know that my redeemer liveth, and that he shall stand at the latter day upon the earth:
Job 19:26 And though after my skin worms destroy this body, yet in my flesh shall I see God:
Job 19:27 Whom I shall see for myself, and mine eyes shall behold, and not another;
That seems pretty straight forward to me, Job in HIS FLESH expects to see God AFTER his body has been destroyed by worms.
Psa 16:9 Therefore my heart is glad, and my glory rejoiceth: my flesh also shall rest in hope.
Psa 16:10 For thou wilt not leave my soul in hell; neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.
Now these verses in psalms are obviously a prophecy of Jesus' resurrection so I won't go into a detailed commentary on how it applied to David since the obvious rebuttal would be that it was a prophecy which applied 'only' to Jesus.
Isa 26:19 Thy dead men shall live, together with my dead body shall they arise. Awake and sing, ye that dwell in dust: for thy dew is as the dew of herbs, and the earth shall cast out the dead.
Isa 26:21 For, behold, the LORD cometh out of his place to punish the inhabitants of the earth for their iniquity: the earth also shall disclose her blood, and shall no more cover her slain.
These verses are as subtle as a Mack Truck. If you need this passage explained then there is no hope that you will ever understand anything.
Dan 12:2 And many of those who sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to shame and everlasting contempt.
The word 'dust' is translated from "`aphar" and is very specific in meaning 'clay, earth, mud:--ashes, dust, earth, ground etc.' It is much more precise than 'sheol' which can be translated as 'grave, hell, pit, etc'. Daniel isn't speaking about the soul or spirit or some shadowy after life but explicitly about those in a literal grave, ie the physical body.
1Co 6:14 And God hath both raised up the Lord, and will also raise up us by his own power.
Paul ties the resurrection of Christ with the resurrection of believers. Absolutely no indication that the resurrection of believers is in any way different from the resurrection of Christ, same words used of both events.
1Co 15:12 Now if Christ be preached that he rose from the dead, how say some among you that there is no resurrection of the dead?
1Co 15:13 But if there be no resurrection of the dead, then is Christ not risen:
1Co 15:14 And if Christ be not risen, then is our preaching vain, and your faith is also vain.
1Co 15:15 Yea, and we are found false witnesses of God; because we have testified of God that he raised up Christ: whom he raised not up, if so be that the dead rise not.
1Co 15:16 For if the dead rise not, then is not Christ raised:
Again Paul ties the resurrection of the dead to the resurrection of Jesus Christ. He goes so far as to say that to deny the resurrection of the dead is to deny that Christ was raised. This whole chapter of 1Co is a great study into the exact nature of the resurrection.
2Co 4:14 Knowing that he which raised up the Lord Jesus shall raise up us also by Jesus, and shall present us with you.
Yet again the resurrection of the believers is the same as the resurrection of Jesus.
Heb 6:1 Therefore leaving the principles of the doctrine of Christ, let us go on unto perfection; not laying again the foundation of repentance from dead works, and of faith toward God,
Heb 6:2 Of the doctrine of baptisms, and of laying on of hands, and of resurrection of the dead, and of eternal judgment.
Which resurrection of the dead? Christs? or that of believers? It doesn't matter because they are both so closely tied together they are equivalent and it isn't necessary to specify which resurrection.
Anonymous
Job 19:25 For I know that my redeemer liveth, and that he shall stand at the latter day upon the earth:
Job 19:26 And though after my skin worms destroy this body, yet in my flesh shall I see God:
Job 19:27 Whom I shall see for myself, and mine eyes shall behold, and not another;
That seems pretty straight forward to me, Job in HIS FLESH expects to see God AFTER his body has been destroyed by worms.
Psa 16:9 Therefore my heart is glad, and my glory rejoiceth: my flesh also shall rest in hope.
Psa 16:10 For thou wilt not leave my soul in hell; neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.
Now these verses in psalms are obviously a prophecy of Jesus' resurrection so I won't go into a detailed commentary on how it applied to David since the obvious rebuttal would be that it was a prophecy which applied 'only' to Jesus.
Isa 26:19 Thy dead men shall live, together with my dead body shall they arise. Awake and sing, ye that dwell in dust: for thy dew is as the dew of herbs, and the earth shall cast out the dead.
Isa 26:21 For, behold, the LORD cometh out of his place to punish the inhabitants of the earth for their iniquity: the earth also shall disclose her blood, and shall no more cover her slain.
These verses are as subtle as a Mack Truck. If you need this passage explained then there is no hope that you will ever understand anything.
Dan 12:2 And many of those who sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to shame and everlasting contempt.
The word 'dust' is translated from "`aphar" and is very specific in meaning 'clay, earth, mud:--ashes, dust, earth, ground etc.' It is much more precise than 'sheol' which can be translated as 'grave, hell, pit, etc'. Daniel isn't speaking about the soul or spirit or some shadowy after life but explicitly about those in a literal grave, ie the physical body.
1Co 6:14 And God hath both raised up the Lord, and will also raise up us by his own power.
Paul ties the resurrection of Christ with the resurrection of believers. Absolutely no indication that the resurrection of believers is in any way different from the resurrection of Christ, same words used of both events.
1Co 15:12 Now if Christ be preached that he rose from the dead, how say some among you that there is no resurrection of the dead?
1Co 15:13 But if there be no resurrection of the dead, then is Christ not risen:
1Co 15:14 And if Christ be not risen, then is our preaching vain, and your faith is also vain.
1Co 15:15 Yea, and we are found false witnesses of God; because we have testified of God that he raised up Christ: whom he raised not up, if so be that the dead rise not.
1Co 15:16 For if the dead rise not, then is not Christ raised:
Again Paul ties the resurrection of the dead to the resurrection of Jesus Christ. He goes so far as to say that to deny the resurrection of the dead is to deny that Christ was raised. This whole chapter of 1Co is a great study into the exact nature of the resurrection.
2Co 4:14 Knowing that he which raised up the Lord Jesus shall raise up us also by Jesus, and shall present us with you.
Yet again the resurrection of the believers is the same as the resurrection of Jesus.
Heb 6:1 Therefore leaving the principles of the doctrine of Christ, let us go on unto perfection; not laying again the foundation of repentance from dead works, and of faith toward God,
Heb 6:2 Of the doctrine of baptisms, and of laying on of hands, and of resurrection of the dead, and of eternal judgment.
Which resurrection of the dead? Christs? or that of believers? It doesn't matter because they are both so closely tied together they are equivalent and it isn't necessary to specify which resurrection.
Anonymous