You contradict yourself because you said you "understand" these are not the same kinds of slavery yet you take issue that there was slavery in Israel.
slave 
–noun 1.a person who is the property of and wholly subject to another; a bond servant.2.a person entirely under the domination of some influence or person: a slave to a drug. 3.a drudge: a housekeeping slave. 4.a slave ant.5.Photography. a subsidiary flash lamp actuated through its photoelectric cell when the principal flash lamp is discharged.6.Machinery. a mechanism under control of and repeating the actions of a similar mechanism. Compare master (def. 19).
–verb (used without object) 7.to work like a slave; drudge.8.to engage in the slave trade; procure, transport, or sell slaves.
–verb (used with object) 9.to connect (a machine) to a master as its slave.10.Archaic. to enslave.

I can understand there may be certain degrees of slavery, just like there are certain degrees of murder. So do you justify lesser degrees of murder because one is not as brutal as the last? (do not confuse with manslaughter)

But the fact remains the same: a person who is the property of and wholly subject to another; a bond servant. = SLAVE (not farm hand)

I don't care if the Hebrews were enslaved for 430 years. It is wrong
I don't care if you enslave someone for a day. It is wrong

God, if anyone should know the difference and not subject anyone to slavery (if indeed it is a sin). Just because the Hebrews have a jubilee every 50 years and let some slaves go, it does not justify the fact that these people were forced to work for them. You claim we practice slavery here today but that is not the case. Slaves are made to work, they don't have a choice. I can quit my minimum wage job, a slave can't.

You are the one who told me:
Quote Originally Posted by Churchwork
The human condition has not changed. Remember, these are not words for a particular time or place, but these are eternal words. God has it set in His mind to provide one book for the ages so how will He express it?
So are we allowed to keep slaves because the human condition has not changed and Gods words are eternal?

If God expresses his eternal words by enslaving [Leviticus 25:44-46, Exodus 21:2-6, Luke 12:47-48], ordering the deaths of people for expressing their "god given" free-will [Leviticus 21:9, Leviticus 20:10, Leviticus 20:9, Proverbs 20:20, Exodus 21:15], God talking about killing children in and out of the womb. (Prolife?) [Hosea 9:11-16, Ezekiel 9:5-7, Leviticus 26:21-22] More killing and rape [Isaiah 13:15-18, Judges 21:10-24, Numbers 31:7-18, Deuteronomy 22:28-29, Deuteronomy 22:23-24, 2 Samuel 12:11-14]

I can go on and on but it makes me tired looking for murder, rape and death sentences all day. I think the above proves my point. It is not realistic to put someone to death for adultery or having other gods. So the bible is not "one book for the ages". It was intended for use 2000+ years ago. After all Jesus didn't even full fill his own prophesy in [Matthew 24:25-34] ~34I tell you the truth, this generation will certainly not pass away until all these things have happened~. So the bible was never meant to reach our ears, Jesus was meant to come back around 1920 years ago.