PARTURE:

You said Psalm 91 "doesn't talk about Crucifixion." Do you think it predicts the Messiah's resurrection, or just as you said, his rescue of us?

I disagree that "Islam wants to wipe Israel off the face of the earth," but there are probably alot of Palestinian Christians who want their homes back because the so-called "Jewish state" evicted them.

Could Isaiah 52 & 53 be about God's servant Israel? You're right that "Jesus who was beaten and bloodied startled many nations," but how do you know that this verse is about him in particular, since there are other ways for someone to startle nations?

You asked: "Was not Pilate speechless to Jesus for he said he held nothing against Him?" Does it count if Pilate spoke to Jesus before he found him innocent, but not afterwards?

Even if nations today are unwilling to speak about him, does that mean they "shut their mouths at him for that which had not been told them shall they see," and that they are quiet because they understand about him?

What phrase in Isaiah 53 specifically says that he would be put to death?

Was it only because Isaiah 53 referred to the Messiah's tomb that you wrote:
"His resurrection on the third day was not right from the moment of His death on the cross but on the third day. Very plain."
Could lifted up mean "lifted up" as a leader amongst his people, instead of lifted up to heaven?
I read that other translations say the servant in Isaiah 53:5 was bruised instead of crushed. Could a person be "crushed" without being killed? If a person is led to slaughter, does that mean they were actually slaughtered?

The King James version doesn't have for Isaiah 53:8 "But who among the people realized that he was dying for their sins?" Instead the King James Version says he was cut off from the land of the living. Which translation is right? Could the "land of the living" mean Israel?

You translated Isaiah 53:9 as "But he was buried like a criminal; he was put in a rich man's grave." The King James Version says: "he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death." Is this the same thing?

You translated Isaiah 53:9 as: "Yet when his life is made an offering for sin," but the modern Jewish Masoretic translation says: "it pleased the LORD... to see if his soul would offer itself in restitution." Which is right?

Can someone expose themself to death, or suffer for others or "bear their sins," without actually dieing?

I did not see the movie of the Muslim woman who became Christian on the link.

I disagree that "The Bible teaches that once your are saved, you're always saved," since the New Testament warned believers to avoid falling away. I think John Calvin invented this idea, but a former Calvinist told me even Calvin didn't accept it. You are right to say: "How silly it would be if God saves then unsaves then saves then unsaves." God saves everyone, but unfortunately some people reject him, even after they used to accept it.

Kind Regards,
Hal Smith