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Faithful
08-30-2007, 02:58 PM
Does anybody feel as I do that that Rev. 3.10, Luke 21.36 and Matt. 24.42 are distinctly conditional statements for the first rapture for Christians?

Thus, if a believer alive at the first rapture is still clinging to the world as though like a balloon tied down to a pole (which most Christians are), then he will not be ready to be received and will have to go through the time of testing of the Tribulation.

The implications of assuming just because you are a Christian you will be raptured before the Tribulation is that you can be as lazy as you like and still be raptured as the harbinger or advanced party. If this is still your belief, then when you are in the Tribulation, would you not accuse the brethren who are raptured first (Rev. 12.10), for those raptured first, including the firstfruits (14.1-5) are included as the man-child overcomer believers (12.5) who are raptured at Rev. 7.9 to the throne in 3rd heaven before the trumpets of the Tribulation (ch.8ff)?

Imagine if you will 3 million people have just been raptured at the first rapture, but because you do not believe in these conditional statements for first rapture, you accuse those people and do not even believe it is the Tribulation that is occurring, though you may see some similarities.

To my mind and spirit the implications of this are staggering for such souls. Because the mark of the beast is presented in a form that most will accept, and even those who were anticipating the mark will take the mark because they thought it would be something other than what it really is.

Please pray on this with me and consider whether to be rapture ready is simply to be a Christian or to overcometh (Rev. 2 & 3) as a Christian. I am so grateful to God that He has made this so clear to me so that I can help others.